42-year-old man who was undergoing treatment for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma presented to the oncology clinic with changes in his fingernails. Five months earlier, he had presented with gastric-outlet obstruction and had received a diagnosis of high-grade B-cell non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. What is the most likely underlying cause of this presentation? A) Chemotherapy B) Paraneoplastic syndrome C) Metastatic disease of the nail bed D) Hepatic dysfunction E) Tetracycline

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? Chemotherapy

Aap best ho sir ji
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Chemotherapy

Thanx
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Chemotherapy

Answer is A chemotherapy induced

Mees lines.chemo induced.A.

?chemotherapy induced

A. Chemotherapy

Tnx Dr Manmohan Kaur
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Chemo

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